EMT Practice Test

1. Question Content...

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Question1: Which IPsec feature allows device traffic to go directly to the Internet?

Question2: Which element of the security operations process is concerned with using external functions to help achieve goals?

Question3: How does DevSecOps improve the Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) pipeline?

Question4: Match the description with the VPN technology.

Question5: In which type of Wi-Fi attack does the attacker intercept and redirect the victim's web traffic to serve content from a web server it controls?

Question6: Data Loss Prevention (DLP) and Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) fall under which Prisma access service layer?

Question7: Match each description to a Security Operating Platform key capability.

Question8: Which option is an example of a North-South traffic flow?

Question9: Which type of malware takes advantage of a vulnerability on an endpoint or server?

Question10: What differentiates knowledge-based systems from behavior-based systems?

Question11: Which feature of the VM-Series firewalls allows them to fully integrate into the DevOps workflows and CI/CD pipelines without slowing the pace of business?

Question12: Which network firewall primarily filters traffic based on source and destination IP address?

Question13: In an IDS/IPS, which type of alarm occurs when legitimate traffic is improperly identified as malicious traffic?

Question14: Match the DNS record type to its function within DNS.

Question15: In which situation would a dynamic routing protocol be the quickest way to configure routes on a router?

Question16: A user is provided access over the internet to an application running on a cloud infrastructure. The servers, databases, and code of that application are hosted and maintained by the vendor.
Which NIST cloud service model is this?

Question17: Which technique changes protocols at random during a session?

Question18: How does Prisma SaaS provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications?

Question19: Which type of Software as a Service (SaaS) application provides business benefits, is fast to deploy, requires minimal cost and is infinitely scalable?

Question20: Which TCP/IP sub-protocol operates at the Layer7 of the OSI model?

Question21: What does SIEM stand for?

Question22: Which attacker profile uses the internet to recruit members to an ideology, to train them, and to spread fear and include panic?

Question23: A doctor receives an email about her upcoming holiday in France. When she clicks the URL website link in the email, the connection is blocked by her office firewall because it's a known malware website. Which type of attack includes a link to a malware website in an email?

Question24: If an endpoint does not know how to reach its destination, what path will it take to get there?

Question25: What is the definition of a zero-day threat?

Question26: In addition to integrating the network and endpoint components, what other component does Cortex integrate to speed up IoC investigations?

Question27: Which organizational function is responsible for security automation and eventual vetting of the solution to help ensure consistency through machine-driven responses to security issues?

Question28: Which native Windows application can be used to inspect actions taken at a specific time?

Question29: Which Palo Alto Networks subscription service complements App-ID by enabling you to configure the next- generation firewall to identify and control access to websites and to protect your organization from websites hosting malware and phishing pages?

Question30: Which option describes the "selective network security virtualization" phase of incrementally transforming data centers?

Question31: During the OSI layer 3 step of the encapsulation process, what is the Protocol Data Unit (PDU) called when the IP stack adds source (sender) and destination (receiver) IP addresses?

Question32: What does Palo Alto Networks Cortex XDR do first when an endpoint is asked to run an executable?

Question33: Match the IoT connectivity description with the technology.

Question34: What does SIEM stand for?

Question35: Which of the following is a CI/CD platform?

Question36: In the network diagram below, which device is the router?

Question37: What is a key method used to secure sensitive data in Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) applications?

Question38: What are the two most prominent characteristics of the malware type rootkit? (Choose two.)

Question39: Which of the following is an AWS serverless service?

Question40: Which endpoint product from Palo Alto Networks can help with SOC visibility?

Question41: Which term describes data packets that move in and out of the virtualized environment from the host network or a corresponding traditional data center?

Question42: What is the primary security focus after consolidating data center hypervisor hosts within trust levels?

Question43: Which analysis detonates previously unknown submissions in a custom-built, evasion-resistant virtual environment to determine real-world effects and behavior?

Question44: Which option would be an example of PII that you need to prevent from leaving your enterprise network?

Question45: Which statement is true about advanced persistent threats?

Question46: Which action must Secunty Operations take when dealing with a known attack?

Question47: How does adopting a serverless model impact application development?

Question48: What are three benefits of the cloud native security platform? (Choose three.)

Question49: Given the graphic, match each stage of the cyber-attack lifecycle to its description.

Question50: In which step of the cyber-attack lifecycle do hackers embed intruder code within seemingly innocuous files?

Question51: Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security does vulnerability management fall under?

Question52: What are three benefits of SD-WAN infrastructure? (Choose three.)

Question53: Which security component should you configure to block viruses not seen and blocked by the perimeter firewall?

Question54: Which characteristic of serverless computing enables developers to quickly deploy application code?

Question55: In addition to local analysis, what can send unknown files to WildFire for discovery and deeper analysis to rapidly detect potentially unknown malware?

Question56: Which three layers of the OSI model correspond to the Application Layer (L4) of the TCP/IP model?

Question57: What protocol requires all routers in the same domain to maintain a map of the network?

Question58: Which method is used to exploit vulnerabilities, services, and applications?

Question59: Why have software developers widely embraced the use of containers?

Question60: Order the OSI model with Layer7 at the top and Layer1 at the bottom.

Question61: Which NGFW feature is used to provide continuous identification, categorization, and control of known and previously unknown SaaS applications?

Question62: What is the key to "taking down" a botnet?

Question63: Which not-for-profit organization maintains the common vulnerability exposure catalog that is available through their public website?

Question64: Which protocol is used by both internet service providers (ISPs) and network service providers (NSPs)?

Question65: What differentiates Docker from a bare metal hypervisor?

Question66: Why is it important to protect East-West traffic within a private cloud?

Question67: Which activities do local organization security policies cover for a SaaS application?

Question68: Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security addresses ensuring that your cloud resources and SaaS applications are correctly configured?

Question69: Which type of IDS/IPS uses a baseline of normal network activity to identify unusual patterns or levels of network activity that may be indicative of an intrusion attempt?

Question70: When signature-based antivirus software detects malware, what three things does it do to provide protection? (Choose three.)

Question71: Which technique uses file sharing or an instant messenger client such as Meebo running over Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)?

Question72: What is used to orchestrate, coordinate, and control clusters of containers?

Question73: Which classification of IDS/IPS uses a database of known vulnerabilities and attack profiles to identify intrusion attempts?

Question74: Which item accurately describes a security weakness that is caused by implementing a "ports first" data security solution in a traditional data center?